Question of the day
There is a saying that goes that if a person is completely satisfied by God then regardless of circumstance and what’s going around the person, the person will feel satisfied? However, can this state truly be reached? Let’s say hypothetically one is completely satisfied by God. In fact, he/she is so satisfied that he/she wants everyone else to receive the satisfaction from God that he/she has received. However, with this desire, is it,
a.) A God-given desire?
My next question I present is if let’s say he/she sees that other’s aren’t receiving the fullness of God and the satisfaction.
b.) What would be the bibilical way to react?
Where does the balance come in for us as Christians who have met, encountered, and live a life with Christ to say “God I love You so much, but I want you to be known to my friends too because you’re just that awesome” Does this mean one doesn’t think God just for him/herself is good enough. Is God not sufficient?
Honestly, and that’s where I wonder. It’s like I know God’s sovereign and everything, but it’s like going to sleep on a full satisfied stomach while your fellow man is starving and famished going to sleep. How is that really fair? And to top it off, to have God say, “Don’t look at that circumstance, but be satisfied solely by me”
God, why won’t You come and manifest your power to Your creation?
Monday, October 27, 2008
Wednesday, October 1, 2008
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